adnexae?
A-Optic nerve.
B- Trochlear nerve.
C Facial nerve
D. Vestibulocochlear nerve
Q2- The following
factors are responsible for cornea! clarity, except:
A- Corneal avascularity
B- Endothelia! cell ion pumps.
C-Stromal hydration with 90%
water content
D- Pre corneal tear film
Q3-Related to the
aqueous humor the following statements are true except:
A-It is secreted from the non
pigmented ciliary epithelium.
B-It nourishes the iris
C- It: passes from the
posterior chamber to the anterior chamber through the pupil.
D- It drains through the
trabecular meshwork in the angle of the anterior chamber.
Q4-Related to ptosis:
A -.Neurogenic ptosis is due
to facial nerve palsy.
B- Ptosis is defined as
drooping of the upper lid to cover the upper one sixth of the cornea.
C- Simple congenital ptosis is
due to aponeurotic defect.
D- Bell's phenomenon should
always be tested for before commencing into surgery
Q5-Related to the
trichiasis 'the following statements are true except
A- trichiasis (congenital
trichiasis) usually affect one lid only
B- Trachoma is.the commonest
cause of acquired trichiasis,
C- Cicatricial conditions like
burn may be a cause.
D- Ulcerative blepharitis may
be a cause.
. .
Q6-Treatment of
blepharitis includes all of the following except:
A- Proper-removal of crust.
B- Systemjc steroids
C- Topical antibiotics.
D- Systemic tetracycline
Q7- Regarding ltd
tumors all of the following statements are true except;
A- Neurofibromatosis is a
benign tumor,
B- Xcifttlielasma may be
associated with hypercholesterolemia.
C-Nevus never undergoes
malignant changes
D- Hemangioma may be
associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome
Q8- Differential
diagnosis of chronic conjunctivitis includes all of the following, except:
A- Toxic conjunctivitis.
B- chronic nasalacrimal duct
obstruction.
C-Gonococcal keratoconjunctlvitis.
D-Trachoma
Q9- Regarding
conjunctiva! dermoid all of the following statements are true except:
A- Often associated with Goldenhar
syndrome
B- Presents in late adulthood.
C- May cause: astigmatism
which leads to meridional amblyopia,
D- Appears as a soft yellowish
subconjactivl mass
Q10- Acute
conjunctivitis includes all of the following except
A-Trachoma
B- Gonococcal keratoconjunctivitis.
C-
Staph. aureus conjunctivitis,
D-
Strept. pneumonias conjunctivitis
.
Q11- Regarding
neonatal Chlamydia conjunctivitis the following statements are true except:
A-.It is a common cause of neonatal
conjunctivitis,. .
B- It is a notifiable disease
C- It may be associated with
systemic Chlamydia infection:
D-The infection is transmitted by flise
Q12-Kratopathy in
vernal keratoconjuctivitisUvitis includes all of the following 'except:
A-Punctate epithelial
erosions
B- Shield ulceration.
C-
PlaaueJormation.
D-Arlt s line
Ql3-Regarding arcus
lipidus:
A-If severe, it'may affect
vision.
B-lt may indicate a coexisting
hypercholcsterolemia.
C- It rnay need to be treated by .penetrating
keratoplasty.
D- It never occurs in a person under fifty
years of age
Q14- Regarding the
treatment of bacterial'keratitis all of the following statements are true
except;
A- Antibiotics should be used from
the start, even before the results of culture and sensitivity.
B-mydriatlcs (e.g. atropine
drops) may be used to prevent synechia..
C-TopicaI steroid drops are
used from the first day of diagnosis to reduce corned! scarring.
D- Bandage contact lens can be used to aid
healing of the ulcer after it has been sterilize
Ql5-The following are
predisposing factors for keratitis except:
A- Contact lens wear.
B- Dry cornea.
C- Decreased corneal
sensation,
D-Use of topical antibiotics
Q16-Complications of
Keratitis include:
A-. Anterior
uveitis
B- Cornea! Perforation
C- Endoplithalmitis.
D- All of 'the above
Q17- Regarding scleritis
and episcleritis all of the following statements are true except:
A- Episcleritis is more common
than scleritis.
B-Episcleritis is more benign
shan sclcritis
.C-Both episcleritis and scleritis
affects vision
D- Episcleritis is lessassociated with
systemic diseases than scleritis
QI8- Regarding the
treatment of herpetic keratitis the 'following statements are true except:
A-Primary hepetic infection may
be self limiting
B- Topical acyclovir may be used.
D-Debridement of the
epithelial ulcer is useful D-Amoeboid (geographical) ulcer will fonn if topical
steroid is not used
Q19- Regarding.fungal
keratitis following statements are true except:
A- the patient may have a history
of an ocular trauma with organic contamination.
B- Satellite lesion may occur.
C-Uveitis and hypopyon never
occur
D-It may be treated with chlorhexidine
Q20- Regarding
management of cornea! chemical burn the following statements, are true except:
A-Full ocular examination
shoud be done berore treatment
B. Copious irrigation of the
eye is essential.
C. Blanching of the limbal
vessels is a poor prognostic sign.
D. Atropine eye drops may be used, but
phenylphrine drops should be avoided.
Q21- Regarding posterior
scleritis
A-Dilopia may occur.
B-Retina is never affected.
C- Pain is not a symptom.
D- Vision is usually normal.
Q22- Intraocular
pressure (IOP) in a patient anterior uveitis may be:
A - Normal.
B- Increased
C- Decrease
D- All of the above
Q23- Clinical features
of anterior uveitis is include all of the following except:
A- Photophobia.
B-Painless red eye
C-Inflammatory cells in the
aqueous humor.
D-Keratic precipitates.
24- Regarding
congenital anomalies of uveal tract all of the following statements are true except:
A-Coloboma is a tissue
deficiency that is most common at the superotemporal aspect.
B-Corectopia means that the
pupil is ectopic.
C-Polycoria means the presence
of multiple pupils
D- Persistent pupillary
membrane may present as leukocoria
Q25- In a uveitis
patient the following situations necessitate investigations
A- Chronic or recurrent uveitis.
B- Bilateral uveitis,
C- Uveitis associated with
systemic findings.
D-All of the above
Q26- The following
drugs can be used for treating anterior uveitis except:
A-Timolol 0.5% eye drops.
B- Atropine eye drops.
C-Pilocarpine eye drops
D-Topical steroid drops.
Q27- Choroiditis may
be complicated by the following except;
A-Corneal edema
B-Exudative retinal detachement
C- Macularedema.
D- Retinitis.
Q28- Painful red eye
may be any of the following except:
A- Angle closure glaucoma,
B- Acute iritis.
C- Cornea! ulcer,
D-Conjunctivitis
Q29- All of the
following statements about ocular discharge are true except;
A- Purulent in bacterial
infections.
B- Mucopurulent in Chlamydial
infection.
C- Mucoid in allergic
conjunctivitis,
D- Watery in Gonococcal infection.
Q30-Visual Impairment
and red eye occur in the following condition
A-Episcleritis
B-Acute iritis
C-Keratitis
ِِ
ِِ
Q31- The most propable
diagnosis in a 30 years old male patient known to have ankylosing spondylitis
and recently complained of red eye, photophobia and visual impairment is:
A- Angle closure glaucoma.
B-Acute anterior uveitis
C- Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
D- Acute conjunctivitis.
Q32- Sectorial redness
in the nasal aspect of the balbar conjunctive could be any of the following
diagnoses except:
A- Inflamed pterygium
B-Acute iritis.
C- Nodular episcleritis,
D- Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Q33- Circumcorneal injection may be dueto all of the
following except
A- Acute iritis.
B- Angle closure glaucoma,
C-Keratitis
D-Acute conjuctivitis
Q34-Red eye accompanied by adilated pupil could be seen in:
A-Acute iritis,
B-Angle closure glaucoma
C-Keratitis
D-Uveitis
Q35-Red eye accompanied by a small irregular pupil could be seen in:
A-Acute iritis
B-angle closture glaucoma.
C- Keratitis.
D-Acute conjunctivitis.
Q36- The cornea in a patient with conjunctivitis
A-Is normal
B-Stains with fluresceine.
C- Is cloudy
D-none of the above
Q37- The most significant cause of leukocoria in children is;
A- Congenital cataract,
B-Ritinoblastoma
C- Retinopathy of pre maturity, .
D- Retinal dysplasia.
Q38- The most common cause of leukocoria in children.is:
A-Congenital cataract. .
B- Retinoblastoma.
C- Retinopathy of prematurity.
D-Retinal dysplasia.
Q39- Possible causes for chronic painless visual loss in an elderly
patient include all of the following except:
A- Cataract
B-Primary open angle glaucoma
C-Chronic anterior uveitis.
D- Diabetic maculopathy.
Q40- Possible causes for sudden visual loss include all of the following
except:
A ^Retinal detachment.
B- Vitreous hemorrhage
C- Central retinal artery occlusion
D-Secodary open angle glaucoma.
Q41- During accommodation process:
A- Ciliary muscles relax. . '
B- Zonules become tense.
C- Crystalline lens jncreases its convexity.
D- Antero-posterior diameter of crystalline lens decreases.
Q42- A patient with cataract may present with the following complaints
except:
A- Gradually increasing painless loss of vision.
B-'Glare
C- Change in refractive state.
D-Lacrimation
Q43- Evaluation of retinal function in a patient with dense cataract
includes:
A- Light pupillary reaction test.
B- Four quadrants light projection test,
C-Color-discrimination test
D- All of the above
Q44- The most suitable surgical method for congenital cataract is:
A- Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE).
B- Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE).
C- Phacomulsification.
D-Lense
Q45- The most recent and preferred surgical method for adult cataract
Surgery is:
A- Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE).
B-Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE).
C- Phacomusificat'ion.
D- Lfenscctomy.
46- Among the following complications of cataract surgery, the most
serious is:
A-Endophlhalmitls.
B- Astigmatism
C- Surgical hyphema,
D- Cystoid macular edema,
Q47- Causes of proptosis include all of the following except;
A - Orbital cellulitis
B- Thyrotoxicosis.
C-Congenital glaucoma.
D- Retro bulbar hemorrhage
Q48-Reiters Syndrome includes the following:
A-Arthritis.
B- Urethritis
C-Anterior uveitis.
D-All of the above
Q49-Behcet disease includes the following:
A- Recurrent non granulamatous
uveitis.
B- Recurrent oral a phrhous ulceration.
C- Genital.ulcerntion.
D-All of the above.
Q50- Congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct (Congenital dacryocystitis)
may be treated with all of the following except:
A- Topical antibiotics.
B- Frequent massage of the inner canthal region.
C- Probing after six months of age.
D- Urgent surgery^ immediately after birth.
Q51- Ophthalmic uses of laser include;
A- Retina! detachment surgery,
B- Glaucoma surgery.
C- Refractive surgery.
D- All of the above.
Q52-Causes of orbital cellulitis include:
A- Retained intraorbital foreign body.
B- Extension of infection from a nearby sinus infection,
C- Following infected orbital surgery
D- All of the above.
Q53- Clinical features of orbital cellulites Include all of the
following except;
A- Mild proptosis,
B- Limitation of ocular movements.
C- Swelling and congestion of the lids and conjunctive,
D- Seasonal itching of the eye.
Q54-Complicationsof orbital cellulitis include all of the following
except:
A- Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
B- Pan ophthalmitis
C-Meningitis.
D-Angle closure glaucoma.
Q55-In a patient with orbital cellulitis, the following is an early sign
of cavernous sinus thrombosis:
A-Increasing fever and rigor.
B- Frozen (Immobile) eye
C- Dilated pupil.
D-Loss of corneal reflex due to corneal insensitivity
Q56-
The following statements about retina.are true except
A- Retina is
divided into two main layers; outer neurosensory layer and inner retinal
pigment epithelium
B-Macula
lutae lies in the posterior pole of the retina temporal to the optic disc.
C- Optic
disc is devoid of photoreceptors
D- Fovea
contains cones only (no rods).
Q57-One
of the following statements about retina is true:
A- Optic disc
is the most light- sensitive area in the retina.
B- Fovea
centralis contains rods only.
C-Retinal
vein pulsation is normal while retinal arterial pulsation is abnormal.
D- Outer
retinal layers are supplied by the central retinal artery,
Q58-
The following statements about retinitis are true except:
A- Retinitis
is usually secondary to choroiditis
(Chorioreiinitis).
B-
Toxocara infection may present itself as a retinal granuloma.
C-
Toxoplasma chorioretinitis is usually congenital and may be associated with
anterior uveitis
D-Congenital
rubella syndrome is due to infection of pregnant lady during her last trimester
Q59-
The following statements central retinal vein are true except:
A-
Glaucoma may be either a cause or a complication of the disease.
B- DM,
hypertension and polycythemia are systemic risk factors that should be looked for.
C-The development
of cotton wool spots is a good prognostic sign that occurs more in the non
ischemic
variety
D-It presents
as a sudden painless loss of vision.
Q60-
The following statements about central retinal vein occlusion are true except:
A - Laser
retinal photocoagulation is used in treatment.
B-
Development of retinal neovascularization is a poor prognostic sign and
indicates retinal ischemia,
C-Jt may
be complicated by retinal detachment.
D- About
ninety percent 90% of patients will lose their vision.
Q61-
The following statements about central retinal artery occlusion are true
except:
A- It may
present as a sudden painless loss of vision.
B- If
associated with pain, high ESR in an elderly patient, then giant cell arteritis
should be considered. C-Light pupillary reaction is brisk. .
D- Vision
is severely reduced.
Q62-
The fallowing statements about central retinal artery are true except:
A- The
patient may be treated as out patient and docs not need hospital admission.
B-
Thorough assessment of the cardiovascular system is needed.
C- Retina
shows attenuated blood vessels and cotton wool spots.
D-
.Reducing IOP by i- v. acetazolamide & paracentisis may help to improve
perfusion pressure.
Q63-
The following statements about age related macular degeneration are true except
A-central
vision is preserved while peripheral (navigational) vision is severely reduced.
B- Visual
impairment is more marked during day time than night time.
C- Wet AMD
is characterized by hemorrhage exudate and sub retinal neovascular membrane.
D- It is
usually bilateral asymmetrical,
Q64-
The following statements about retinal detachment are true except;
A-retinal
detachment means separation of the retina from the choroid,
B-In
rhegmatogenous retinal detachment there is a retinal, break,
C-
-Advanced diabetic eye disease and penetrating ocular injury are common causes
of fractional RD.
D.- Infra
'ocular inflammation may lead to exudative retinal detachment by damaging RPE
barrier,
Q65-
The following statement about the management of retinal detachment is true:
A-
Tractional R.D. is best treated with pars plana vitrectomy.
B-
Cryotherapy and laser therapy are used to reattach the retina.
C-
Exudative R.D. Is treatedby treating the cause,
D-AII of
the above.
Q66-
The following statements about the retinitis pigmentosa are true except;
A- Retinitis
pigmentosa affects rods photoreceptors that are present mainly in the retinal
periphery.
B- Night blindness
is the typical presentation.
C-
Pigmentary retinopathy is characteristic.
D-Visual
field is typically normal.
Q67-
Possible ocular findings in retinitis pigmentosa include all of the following
except:
A- Posterior subcapsular cataract
B- Cystoid macular oedema.
C-Keratoconus.
D-Retinal detachment
Q68-
About retinoblastoma, the following statements are true except:
A- It is
the most common primary malignant infra ocular tumour in children.
B- The
usual age of presentation is around eighteen months,
C- Most
cases are familial with autosomal dominant inheritance.
D- If the
condition is bilateral, then all family members must be examined.
Q69-
Clinical features of retinoblastoma include the following:
A-
Leukocoria.
B-
Squint.
C-
Uveitis.
D- All of
the above.
Q70-
Ocular complications of diabetes mellitus include the following:
A- Cataract.
B-
Glaucoma
C-
Diplopia due to Abducent nerve palsy
D- All of
the above.
Q71-
The following factors favours good prognosis regarding diabetic retinopathy except
A- Strict
metabolic control,
B-
Correction of associated hypertension, renal failure and hypercholesterolemia.
C- Smoking
and anemia.
D- Short
duration of D.M.
Q72-
The following statements about stages diabetic retinopathy are true except:
A- Back
grount stage is characterized by new vessels formation.
B-
Diabetic maculopathy is the most common cause of visual impairment in diabolic
patients.
C- In the
proliferative stage, new vessels at the disc are more dangerous than new
vessels elsewhere.
D- End
stage usually needs to be treated with pars plana viterectomy.
Q73- In
diabetic retinopathy, Laser photocoagulation is indicated in the following
situations except:
A-Presence
of microaneurysms scattered all over the retina.
B- Retinal
edema within 500 microns from the center of the fovea,
C- Hard
exudate within 500 microns from the center of the fovea.
D- New
vessels at the disc margin.
Q.74-
Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy include all of the following except:
A-Lid lag
and lid retraction.
B-Axial
proptosis that may be sever enough to prevent lids closure.
C-Vertical
diplopia due to cranial nerve palsy.
D- Corneal
involvement in the form of superior limbic KC.
Q75-
Ocular features of anemia include the following:
A- Pale conjunctiva
B- Retinal hemorrhages.
C- Dilated
retinal veins.
D- All of the above
Q76-
Causes of vitreous hemorrhage include:
A- Ocular trauma.
B- Proleferative retinoopathy (e.g. diabetic
retinopathy).
C- Blood
dyscrasias.
D- A II of
the above.
Q77- Regarding
vitreous hemorrhage all of the following statements are true except:
A - Subhyaloid
hemorrhage is boat shaped and remains unclatted for long time.
B- It is
presented with sudden onset of floaters.
C-
Treatment includes bed rest, eye padding and head elevation
D- Early
viterectomy(within the first three months) is indicated if VA is less than 6/60.
Q78-
Regarding vitreous disease all of the following statements are true except:
A-
Asteroid hyalosis occur in elderly and does not need treatment.
B- Synehisis
scintillans occur in eyes with old vitreous hemorrhage or uveitis, and is
associated with poor vision
C- Muscae
vollitantes usually needs to be treated with viterectomy
D-
PHPV(Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous) is usually unilateral.
Q79-
Clinical features of optic nerve diseases include all of the following except:
A- Loss of
vision,
B- Visual
field defect.
C- Diminished
light brightness sensitivity
D- Sudden
onset of floaters
Q80- AII
of the following statements about optic neuritis are true except:
A- Causes
include inflammatory or demyelinated lesions.
B- Retrobullbar
neuritis is characterized by a normal looking optic disc.
C-Clinical
features may include visual impairment with increased body temperature.
D-
Treatment should be started oral prednisolone for eleven days.
Q81-
All of the following statements about papilledema are true except:
A- Vision
is usually poor from the startِِ
B- All
cases should be considered as having an intracranial mass unless proved otherwise,
C- Absent
retinal venous pulsation is an early sign,
D- Chronic
cases may be associated withretinal exudates in the form of macular star
Q82-
Causes of optic disc swelling include all of the following except:
A- Open angle, glaucoma,
B- Central retinal vein occlusion.
C- Malignant hypertension,
D- Ischem'ic optic neuropathy.
Q83-Near
reflex involves the following:
A-
Accommodation
B- Convergence.
C- Miosis
D- All of
the above.
Q84-
Light- near dissociation means:
A- Light
reflex is present but near reflex is absent.
B- Both
light reflex and near reflex are absent.
C- Both
light reflex and near reflex are present.
D- None of
the above.
Q85-Small
irregular pupils in both eyes occur in the following condition:
A-Amaurotic pupil.
B-Argyll Robertson pupil.
C- Holmes-Adie
pupil
D- Homer's syndrome,
Q86- Unilateral
dilated pupil occur in the following condition:
A- Amaurotic pupil..
B-Argyll
Robertson pupil.
C-
Holmes-Adie pupil.
D- Homer's
syndrome.
Q87-
Homer syndrome includes the following findings:
A- Mild
ptosis.
B- Miasis.
C-
Heterochromia in congenital cases.
D- All of
the above.
Q88-
Causes of Homer syndrome include:
A-
Pancoast tumour of the lung.
B- Carotid
artery aneurysm.
C- Brain
-stem demyelination.
D- All of
the above.
Q89- One
of the following statements about myasthenia gravis is true:
A- Ocular
involvement is commonly found, but rarely a presenting symptom,
B- Cocaine
4% test is useful for diagnosis and localization,
C- Ptosis
in myasthenia is most sever in the morning but improves with. the end of the
day.
D-Long acting
anticholine esterase drugs are used for the treatment.
Q90- the
following signs are present in Qculomotor nerve palsy except:
A -
Ptosis.
B-Dilated
pupil in medical cause like diabetic mellitus,
C-
Divergent eye,
D- Weak
accommodation.
Q9l-
Involuntary rhythmic to and fro oscillatory movement of the eyes is called:
A- Strabismus.
B- Nystagmus.
C-
Amblyopia.
D-
Diplopia.
Q92-
Ocular misalignment so that the image of an object does not fall on the both
foveas simultaneously is,
A-
Strabismus.
B-
Nystagmus.
C-
Amblyopia.
D-
Diplopia.
Q93-In
pseudosquint:
A- Corneal
light reflection test is normal but cover test is abnormal.
B- Wide
interpupillary distance due to Hypertelorism will present as pseudoesotropia.
C- Retinal
examination is not necessary.
D-
Prominent epicanthal fold is a common cause that may disappear or lessen with
age.
Q94-
Convergent squint in a two years old child can be due to any of the following
except:
A-Abducent
palsy.
B- Accomodative esotrapia.
C- Oculomotor palsy.
D- Essential esotropia.
... •
. '
Q95-
Comparing between accornmodative esotropia and essential esotropia, only one
statement is-true:
A- Essential
esotropia usually starts at the age of three years,
B- Accomodative
esotropia is usually associated with a high hypermetropia.
C-
Essential esotropia is best treated with glasses.
D-
Accommodative esotropia must be treated with urgent surgery.
Q96-The
following statements are true regarding intermittent eyotropi'a except:
A-The
angle of deviation varies with different.directions of gaze.
B-Usually
associated with myopia.
C-
Triggered by fatigue, inattention or emotional upset.
D-
Initially treated with full myopic glass correction and observation:
Q97-
The following statements are true in the treatment of strabismus except
A- Full cycloplegic
correction of refractive error.
B-
Treatment of amblyopia by occlusion of the better seeing eye.
C- Extra ocular
muscle surgery to restore alignment if glasses fail.
D- All of the
above
Q98-
The most propable diagnosis in a sixty years old man with a dome shaped
pigmented subretinal lesion is:
A- Retinoblasiotna.
B- Choroidal melanoma.
C-
Rhabdomyosarcoma.
D- Persistent hyperplastic primary
vitreous,
Q99- In
Simple myopic astigmatism :
A- There
is tendency for Eso deviation.
B- Two
images are formed, one on the retina and the second is from of the retina.
C- Vision
is corrected by spherical concave lenses.
D- There
is high incidence of retinal detachment.
Q100-
Regarding cup: disc ratio (CDR), one statement is true:
A- It
should be 0.3 and less.
B- It
should be 0.3 and more,
C-
Asymmetry in the cups between the two eyes is a normal finding.
D- It is not a. useful remark in the follow up
of glaucoma patients.
Ql0l-
All of the followings are risk factors for development of primary angle closure
glaucoma (PACG) except:
A- Age
above sixty years,
B- Male
gender,
C-
Caucasian racial group.
D-
Positive family history
Q102-
The initial treatment of choice for primary open angle glaucoma-(POAG) is:
A- Topical
anti glaucoma medication.
B- Laser
trabeculoplasty
C-
Traheailotomy
D- None of
the above
Q103-
One of the followings is not a feature of congenital glaucoma:
A- Cornea!
haze.
B- Buphthalmos.
C- Break
in Descent membrane.
D- Iris neovascularization.
Q104-
One of the following anti glaucoma groups is used to enhance the uveoscleral
outflow:
A- Beta adrenergic
antagonists.
B-
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
C- Prostaglandins.
D-
Miotics.
Q105-
Timolol eye drop is contraindicated in the following situations except:
A-
Bronchial asthma.
B- Renal
stones
C- Third
degree heart block.
D- Heart
failure.
Q106-The
following tonometers depends on the principle of indentation:
A- Schiotz.
B- Perkins
C- Tonopen
D-
Goldmann
Q107-
Risk factors for the development of primary open angle glaucoma include the
following except:
A- Age above
sixty years,
B- Positive
family history,
C- Hypermetropia.
D- Black
race,
Q108-
causes of neovascular (mbeotic) glaucoma include the following except:
A- Lens
induced glaucoma.
B-
Diabetic retinopathy.
C- Central retinal vein occlusion.
D-Ocular ischemic
syndrome.
Q109- A
middle aged man is presented wish poor vision following a blunt ocular trauma.
He has a normal looking fundus and a hypermetropic refraction of about eleven
diopters (+11) but no history of wearing
glasses
previously. The most likely diagnosis is:
A-Traumatic
cataract
B-Traumatic
lens dislocation
C- ingle
recession glaucoma
D-Rhegmutogenous retinal detachment
Q110-
Regarding the cornea all of the following statements are true except:
A- The
cornea acts as a convex lens that changes its power during accommodation
process,
B- It has
an endothelial monolayer that maintains cornea! relative dehydration.
C-The
stroma forms the majority of the corneal thickness.
D- The
corneal epithelium is stratified squamous but in contrast to the skin, it is non
keratinized.
Q111-Regarding
congenital anomalies of the lid:
A-
Epicanthal folds are usually unilateral,
B-
Cryptophthalmos is a fold of skin that crosses nasal aspect of the palpebral
fissure.
C-In Distichiasis
an extra row of cilia is present.
D-
Ablepharon is a common congnital defect.
Q112-
Keratitis due to hypersensitivity (immune) reaction includes all of the
following except:
A-
Interstitial keratitis.
B- Marginal corneal ulcer in a patient with
staplylococcal blepharitis.
C- Neurotroplic
ulcer
D- Phlyctenular
keratoconjuctivitis.
Q113-
The following micro organisms can penetrate an intact corneal epithelium
except:
A- Corynaebacterium
diphtheriae.
B-
Gonococci.
C- Chlamydia trachomatis,
D- Streptococci.
Q114-
Causes of conjunctival pseudo membrane include all of the following except:
A-Severe
adenoviral infection.
B-
Gonococcus infection.
C- Steven - Johnson syndrome,
D- Molluscum contagiosum.
Q115- Regarding
Trachoma all of the following statements are true except:
A- Corneal
opacity is the end stage of the disease process.
B- It is
caused by sero types A, B& C.
C- It is a
disease of poor condition of hygiene.
D-
Treatment is by a single dose of metronidazole with strict personal hygiene
Q116-
Conjunctival melanoma may arise from all of the following except:
A- Primary
acquired melanosh (PAM) with atypia,
B-
Pre-existing nevus.
C- Prlmary
acquired melanosis (PAM) without atypia.
D-It may
arise de novo.
Q117-
Red eye accompanied by a cornea! lesion (hat stains with fluorcsccin could he
seen in:
A-Acute iritis
B-Angle
closure glaucoma,
C- Keratitis
D- Acute
conjunctivitis.
Q118-
Uses of slit lamp:
A-
Measurement of IOP by Gold mann tonometer,
B- Minor
surgical procedures like corneal.foreign body removal.
C- Laser
delivery to the eye,
D- All of
the above
Q119- Uses
of direct ophthalmoscope include the following except:
A-
Examination of the anterior segment.
B- Examination
of the posterior segment
C- Laser
delivery to the eye.
D- Visuoscopy
Q120-
Fluorescein stain:
A - Its
use is totally free from any risk of infection.
B- Pink in
colur
C- Stains
both epithelial defects and normal epithelial cells.
D- May be
used in tonometry
0 comments:
Post a Comment