Thursday, July 12, 2012

Multiple choice questions

Q1- Which one of the following cranial nerves does not directly innervate the eye ball or it’s
A-Optic nerve.     
B- Trochlear nerve.
C Facial nerve
D. Vestibulocochlear nerve

Q2- The following factors are responsible for cornea! clarity, except:    
A- Corneal avascularity
B- Endothelia! cell ion pumps.
C-Stromal hydration with 90% water content
D- Pre corneal tear film

Q3-Related to the aqueous humor the following statements are true except:
A-It is secreted from the non pigmented ciliary epithelium.         
B-It nourishes the iris
C- It: passes from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber through the pupil.
D- It drains through the trabecular meshwork in the angle of the anterior chamber.

Q4-Related to ptosis:
A -.Neurogenic ptosis is due to facial nerve palsy.
B- Ptosis is defined as drooping of the upper lid to cover the upper one sixth of the cornea.
C- Simple congenital ptosis is due to aponeurotic defect.
D- Bell's phenomenon should always be tested for before commencing into surgery

Q5-Related to the trichiasis 'the following statements are true except
A- trichiasis (congenital trichiasis) usually affect one lid only
B- Trachoma is.the commonest cause of acquired trichiasis,
C- Cicatricial conditions like burn may be a cause.
D- Ulcerative blepharitis may be a cause.
       .                               .
Q6-Treatment of blepharitis includes all of the following except:   
A- Proper-removal of crust.
B- Systemjc steroids
C- Topical antibiotics.
D- Systemic tetracycline

Q7- Regarding ltd tumors all of the following statements are true except;         
A- Neurofibromatosis is a benign tumor,
B- Xcifttlielasma may be associated with hypercholesterolemia.              
C-Nevus never undergoes malignant changes
D- Hemangioma may be associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome

Q8- Differential diagnosis of chronic conjunctivitis includes all of the following, except:
A- Toxic conjunctivitis.
B- chronic nasalacrimal duct obstruction.
C-Gonococcal keratoconjunctlvitis.

Q9- Regarding conjunctiva! dermoid all of the following statements are true except:
A- Often associated with Goldenhar syndrome
B- Presents in late adulthood.
C- May cause: astigmatism which leads to meridional amblyopia,
D- Appears as a soft yellowish subconjactivl mass
Q10- Acute conjunctivitis includes all of the following except
B- Gonococcal keratoconjunctivitis.          
C- Staph. aureus conjunctivitis,     
D- Strept. pneumonias conjunctivitis
Q11- Regarding neonatal Chlamydia conjunctivitis the following statements are true except:
 A-.It is a common cause of neonatal conjunctivitis,.       .
B- It is a notifiable disease
C- It may be associated with systemic Chlamydia infection:
 D-The infection is transmitted by flise

Q12-Kratopathy in vernal keratoconjuctivitisUvitis includes all of the following 'except:
A-Punctate epithelial erosions      
 B- Shield ulceration.       
C- PlaaueJormation.       
D-Arlt s line
Ql3-Regarding arcus lipidus:
A-If severe, it'may affect vision.
B-lt may indicate a coexisting hypercholcsterolemia.
 C- It rnay need to be treated by .penetrating keratoplasty.
 D- It never occurs in a person under fifty years of age

Q14- Regarding the treatment of bacterial'keratitis all of the following statements are true except;
A- Antibiotics should be used from the start, even before the results of culture and sensitivity.
B-mydriatlcs (e.g. atropine drops) may be used to prevent synechia..
C-TopicaI steroid drops are used from the first day of diagnosis to reduce corned! scarring.
            D- Bandage contact lens can be used to aid healing of the ulcer after it has been sterilize

Ql5-The following are predisposing factors for keratitis except:
A- Contact lens wear.
B- Dry cornea.
C- Decreased corneal sensation,
D-Use of topical antibiotics

Q16-Complications of Keratitis include:
A-. Anterior uveitis
B- Cornea! Perforation
C- Endoplithalmitis. 
D- All of 'the above

Q17- Regarding scleritis and episcleritis all of the following statements are true except:
A- Episcleritis is more common than scleritis.
B-Episcleritis is more benign shan sclcritis
.C-Both episcleritis and scleritis affects vision
 D- Episcleritis is lessassociated with systemic diseases than scleritis

QI8- Regarding the treatment of herpetic keratitis the 'following statements are true except:
A-Primary hepetic infection may be self limiting
 B- Topical acyclovir may be used.
D-Debridement of the epithelial ulcer is useful D-Amoeboid (geographical) ulcer will fonn if topical steroid is not used

Q19- Regarding.fungal keratitis following statements are true except:
A- the patient may have a history of an ocular trauma with organic contamination.
B- Satellite lesion may occur.
C-Uveitis and hypopyon never occur
D-It may be treated with chlorhexidine
Q20- Regarding management of cornea! chemical burn the following statements, are true except:
A-Full ocular examination shoud be done berore treatment
B. Copious irrigation of the eye is essential.   
C. Blanching of the limbal vessels is a poor prognostic sign.
 D. Atropine eye drops may be used, but phenylphrine drops should be avoided.

Q21- Regarding posterior scleritis               
A-Dilopia may occur.                      
B-Retina is never affected.
C- Pain is not a symptom.
D- Vision is usually normal.
Q22- Intraocular pressure (IOP) in a patient anterior uveitis may be:   
A - Normal.        
B- Increased
C- Decrease
D- All of the above

Q23- Clinical features of anterior uveitis is include all of the following except:
A- Photophobia.
B-Painless red eye
C-Inflammatory cells in the aqueous humor.
D-Keratic precipitates.

24- Regarding congenital anomalies of uveal tract all of the following statements are true except:
A-Coloboma is a tissue deficiency that is most common at the superotemporal aspect.
B-Corectopia means that the pupil is ectopic.
C-Polycoria means the presence of multiple pupils
D- Persistent pupillary membrane may present as leukocoria

Q25- In a uveitis patient the following situations necessitate investigations
A- Chronic or recurrent uveitis.
B- Bilateral uveitis,
C- Uveitis associated with systemic findings.
D-All of the above

Q26- The following drugs can be used for treating anterior uveitis  except:
A-Timolol 0.5% eye drops.
B- Atropine eye drops.
C-Pilocarpine eye drops
D-Topical steroid drops.

Q27- Choroiditis may be complicated by the following except;
A-Corneal edema
B-Exudative retinal detachement
C- Macularedema.
D- Retinitis.

Q28- Painful red eye may be any of the following except:
A- Angle closure glaucoma,
B- Acute iritis.
C- Cornea! ulcer,

Q29- All of the following statements about ocular discharge are true except;
A- Purulent in bacterial infections.
B- Mucopurulent in Chlamydial infection.
C- Mucoid in allergic conjunctivitis,
D- Watery in Gonococcal infection.
Q30-Visual Impairment and red eye occur in the following condition
B-Acute iritis
Q31- The most propable diagnosis in a 30 years old male patient known to have ankylosing spondylitis and recently complained of red eye, photophobia and visual impairment is:
A- Angle closure glaucoma.
B-Acute anterior uveitis
C- Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
D- Acute conjunctivitis.

Q32- Sectorial redness in the nasal aspect of the balbar conjunctive could be any of the following diagnoses except:
A- Inflamed pterygium
B-Acute iritis.
C- Nodular episcleritis,
D- Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Q33- Circumcorneal injection may be dueto all of the following except
A- Acute iritis.
B- Angle closure glaucoma,
D-Acute conjuctivitis

Q34-Red eye accompanied by adilated pupil could be seen in:
A-Acute iritis,
B-Angle closure glaucoma

Q35-Red eye accompanied by a small irregular pupil could be seen in:
A-Acute iritis
B-angle closture glaucoma.
C- Keratitis.
D-Acute conjunctivitis.

Q36- The cornea in a patient with conjunctivitis
A-Is normal
B-Stains with fluresceine.
C- Is cloudy
D-none of the above

Q37- The most significant cause of leukocoria in children is;
A- Congenital cataract,
C- Retinopathy of pre maturity,                  .
D- Retinal dysplasia.

Q38- The most common cause of leukocoria in
 A-Congenital cataract. .   
B- Retinoblastoma.         
C- Retinopathy of prematurity.
D-Retinal dysplasia.

Q39- Possible causes for chronic painless visual loss in an elderly patient include all of the following except:
A- Cataract
B-Primary open angle glaucoma
C-Chronic anterior uveitis.       
D- Diabetic maculopathy.

Q40- Possible causes for sudden visual loss include all of the following except:
A ^Retinal detachment.
B- Vitreous hemorrhage
C- Central retinal artery occlusion
D-Secodary open angle glaucoma.

Q41- During accommodation process:
A- Ciliary muscles relax. .    '
B- Zonules become tense.     
C- Crystalline lens jncreases its convexity.
D- Antero-posterior diameter of crystalline lens decreases.

Q42- A patient with cataract may present with the following complaints except:
A- Gradually increasing painless loss of vision. 
C- Change in refractive state.

Q43- Evaluation of retinal function in a patient with dense cataract includes:
A- Light pupillary reaction test.
B- Four quadrants light projection test,
C-Color-discrimination test
D- All of the above

Q44- The most suitable surgical method for congenital cataract is:
A- Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE).
B- Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE).
C- Phacomulsification.

Q45- The most recent and preferred surgical method for adult cataract Surgery is:
A- Intracapsular cataract extraction (ICCE).  
B-Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE).
C- Phacomusificat'ion.
D- Lfenscctomy.

46- Among the following complications of cataract surgery, the most serious is:
B- Astigmatism
C- Surgical hyphema,
D- Cystoid macular edema,

Q47- Causes of proptosis include all of the following except;
A - Orbital cellulitis
B- Thyrotoxicosis.         
C-Congenital glaucoma.
D- Retro bulbar hemorrhage
Q48-Reiters Syndrome includes the following:
B- Urethritis
C-Anterior uveitis.             
 D-All of the above

Q49-Behcet disease includes the following:
A- Recurrent non granulamatous uveitis.
B- Recurrent oral a phrhous ulceration.
C- Genital.ulcerntion.              
D-All of the above.

Q50- Congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct (Congenital dacryocystitis) may be treated with all of the following except:               
A- Topical antibiotics.
B- Frequent massage of the inner canthal region.
C- Probing after six months of age. 
D- Urgent surgery^ immediately after birth.

Q51- Ophthalmic uses of laser include;
A- Retina! detachment surgery,
B- Glaucoma surgery.
C- Refractive surgery.
D- All of the above.

Q52-Causes of orbital cellulitis include:
A- Retained intraorbital foreign body.
B- Extension of infection from a nearby sinus infection, 
C- Following infected orbital surgery
D- All of the above.

Q53- Clinical features of orbital cellulites Include all of the following except;
A- Mild proptosis,
B- Limitation of ocular movements.
C- Swelling and congestion of the lids and conjunctive,
D- Seasonal itching of the eye.

Q54-Complicationsof orbital cellulitis include all of the following except:
A- Cavernous sinus thrombosis.
B- Pan ophthalmitis
D-Angle closure glaucoma.

Q55-In a patient with orbital cellulitis, the following is an early sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis:
A-Increasing fever and rigor.
B- Frozen (Immobile) eye
C- Dilated pupil.
D-Loss of corneal reflex due to corneal insensitivity

Q56- The following statements about retina.are true except
A- Retina is divided into two main layers; outer neurosensory layer and inner retinal pigment epithelium
B-Macula lutae lies in the posterior pole of the retina temporal to the optic disc.  
C- Optic disc is devoid of photoreceptors
D- Fovea contains cones only (no rods).
Q57-One of the following statements about retina is true:
A- Optic disc is the most light- sensitive area in the retina.             
B- Fovea centralis contains rods only.                                              
C-Retinal vein pulsation is normal while retinal arterial pulsation is abnormal.
D- Outer retinal layers are supplied by the central retinal artery,

Q58- The following statements about retinitis are true except:
A- Retinitis  is usually secondary to choroiditis (Chorioreiinitis).
B- Toxocara infection may present itself as a retinal granuloma.
C- Toxoplasma chorioretinitis is usually congenital and may be associated with anterior uveitis
D-Congenital rubella syndrome is due to infection of pregnant lady during her last trimester

Q59- The following statements central retinal vein are true except:
A- Glaucoma may be either a cause or a complication of the disease.
B- DM, hypertension and polycythemia are systemic risk factors that should be looked for.
C-The development of cotton wool spots is a good prognostic sign that occurs more in the non ischemic
D-It presents as a sudden painless loss of vision.

Q60- The following statements about central retinal vein occlusion are true except:
A - Laser retinal photocoagulation is used in treatment.
B- Development of retinal neovascularization is a poor prognostic sign and indicates retinal ischemia,
C-Jt may be complicated by retinal detachment.
D- About ninety percent 90% of patients will lose their vision.

Q61- The following statements about central retinal artery occlusion are true except:
A- It may present as a sudden painless loss of vision.                
B- If associated with pain, high ESR in an elderly patient, then giant cell arteritis should be considered. C-Light pupillary reaction is brisk.       .                                
D- Vision is severely reduced.

Q62- The fallowing statements about central retinal artery  are true except:
A- The patient may be treated as out patient and docs not need hospital admission.
B- Thorough assessment of the cardiovascular system is needed.
C- Retina shows attenuated blood vessels and cotton wool spots.                  
D- .Reducing IOP by i- v. acetazolamide & paracentisis may help to improve perfusion pressure.

Q63- The following statements about age related macular degeneration  are true except
A-central vision is preserved while peripheral (navigational) vision is severely reduced.  
B- Visual impairment is more marked during day time than night time.
C- Wet AMD is characterized by hemorrhage exudate and sub retinal neovascular membrane.
D- It is usually bilateral asymmetrical,                       

Q64- The following statements about retinal detachment are true except;
A-retinal detachment means separation of the retina from the choroid,
B-In rhegmatogenous retinal detachment there is a retinal, break,
C- -Advanced diabetic eye disease and penetrating ocular injury are common causes of fractional RD.
D.- Infra 'ocular inflammation may lead to exudative retinal detachment by damaging RPE barrier,

Q65- The following statement about the management of retinal detachment is true:
A- Tractional R.D. is best treated with pars plana vitrectomy.
B- Cryotherapy and laser therapy are used to reattach the retina.
C- Exudative R.D. Is treatedby treating the cause,
D-AII of the above.

Q66- The following statements about the retinitis pigmentosa are true except;
A- Retinitis pigmentosa affects rods photoreceptors that are present mainly in the retinal periphery.
B- Night blindness is the typical presentation.         
C- Pigmentary retinopathy is characteristic.              
D-Visual field is typically normal.
Q67- Possible ocular findings in retinitis pigmentosa include all of the following except:
A- Posterior subcapsular cataract
B- Cystoid macular oedema.    
D-Retinal detachment

Q68- About retinoblastoma, the following statements are true except:
A- It is the most common primary malignant infra ocular tumour in children.
B- The usual age of presentation is around eighteen months,
C- Most cases are familial with autosomal dominant inheritance.
D- If the condition is bilateral, then all family members must be examined.

Q69- Clinical features of retinoblastoma include the following:       
A- Leukocoria.           
B- Squint.                                             
C- Uveitis.
D- All of the above.

Q70- Ocular complications of diabetes mellitus include the following:
A- Cataract.
B- Glaucoma
C- Diplopia due to Abducent nerve palsy
D- All of the above.

Q71- The following factors favours good prognosis regarding  diabetic retinopathy except
A- Strict metabolic control,
B- Correction of associated hypertension, renal failure and hypercholesterolemia.
C- Smoking and anemia.
D- Short duration of D.M.
Q72- The following statements about stages diabetic retinopathy are true except:
A- Back grount stage is characterized by new vessels formation.
B- Diabetic maculopathy is the most common cause of visual impairment in diabolic patients.
C- In the proliferative stage, new vessels at the disc are more dangerous than new vessels elsewhere.
D- End stage usually needs to be treated with pars plana viterectomy.

Q73- In diabetic retinopathy, Laser photocoagulation is indicated in the following situations except:
A-Presence of microaneurysms scattered all over the retina.
B- Retinal edema within 500 microns from the center of the fovea,
C- Hard exudate within 500 microns from the center of the fovea.
D- New vessels at the disc margin.

Q.74- Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy include all of the following except:
A-Lid lag and lid retraction. 
B-Axial proptosis that may be sever enough to prevent lids closure.
C-Vertical diplopia due to cranial nerve palsy.    
D- Corneal involvement in the form of superior limbic KC.

Q75- Ocular features of anemia include the following:
A- Pale conjunctiva
B- Retinal hemorrhages.             
C- Dilated retinal veins.
 D- All of the above

Q76- Causes of vitreous hemorrhage include:
A- Ocular trauma.
B- Proleferative retinoopathy (e.g. diabetic retinopathy).
C- Blood dyscrasias.
D- A II of the above.

Q77- Regarding vitreous hemorrhage all of the following statements are true except:
A - Subhyaloid hemorrhage is boat shaped and remains unclatted for long time.
B- It is presented with sudden onset of floaters.          
C- Treatment includes bed rest, eye padding and head elevation
D- Early viterectomy(within the first three months) is indicated if VA is less than 6/60.

Q78- Regarding vitreous disease all of the following statements are true except:
A- Asteroid hyalosis occur in elderly and does not need treatment.
B- Synehisis scintillans occur in eyes with old vitreous hemorrhage or uveitis, and is associated with poor vision
C- Muscae vollitantes usually needs to be treated with viterectomy
D- PHPV(Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous) is usually unilateral.

Q79- Clinical features of optic nerve diseases include all of the following except:
A- Loss of vision,
B- Visual field defect.
C- Diminished light brightness sensitivity
D- Sudden onset of floaters

Q80- AII of the following statements about optic neuritis are true except:
A- Causes include inflammatory or demyelinated lesions.
B- Retrobullbar neuritis is characterized by a normal looking optic disc.
C-Clinical features may include visual impairment with increased body temperature.
D- Treatment should be started oral prednisolone for eleven days.

Q81- All of the following statements about papilledema are true except:
A- Vision is usually poor from the startِِ
B- All cases should be considered as having an intracranial mass unless proved otherwise,
C- Absent retinal venous pulsation is an early sign,
D- Chronic cases may be associated withretinal exudates in the form of macular star

Q82- Causes of optic disc swelling include all of the following except:
A- Open angle, glaucoma,
B- Central retinal vein occlusion.             
C- Malignant hypertension,
D- Ischem'ic optic neuropathy.

Q83-Near reflex involves the following:
A- Accommodation
B- Convergence.              
C- Miosis
D- All of the above.
Q84- Light- near dissociation means:  
A- Light reflex is present but near reflex is absent.
B- Both light reflex and near reflex are absent.
C- Both light reflex and near reflex are present.
D- None of the above.

Q85-Small irregular pupils in both eyes occur in the following condition:
A-Amaurotic pupil.
B-Argyll Robertson pupil.
C- Holmes-Adie pupil
D- Homer's syndrome,
Q86- Unilateral dilated pupil occur in the following condition:
A- Amaurotic pupil..  
B-Argyll Robertson pupil.
C- Holmes-Adie pupil.
D- Homer's syndrome.

Q87- Homer syndrome includes the following findings:
A- Mild ptosis.
 B- Miasis.
C- Heterochromia in congenital cases.
D- All of the above.

Q88- Causes of Homer syndrome include:
A- Pancoast tumour of the lung.
B- Carotid artery aneurysm.
C- Brain -stem demyelination.
D- All of the above.

Q89- One of the following statements about myasthenia gravis is true:
A- Ocular involvement is commonly found, but rarely a presenting symptom,
B- Cocaine 4% test is useful for diagnosis and localization,
C- Ptosis in myasthenia is most sever in the morning but improves with. the end of the day.
D-Long acting anticholine esterase drugs are used for the treatment.

Q90- the following signs are present in Qculomotor nerve palsy except:
A - Ptosis.                                 
B-Dilated pupil in medical cause like diabetic mellitus,
C- Divergent eye,                     
D- Weak accommodation.

Q9l- Involuntary rhythmic to and fro oscillatory movement of the eyes is called:
A- Strabismus.      
B- Nystagmus.                                             
C- Amblyopia.              
D- Diplopia.              

Q92- Ocular misalignment so that the image of an object does not fall on the both foveas simultaneously is,
A- Strabismus.      
B- Nystagmus.              
C- Amblyopia.   
D- Diplopia.
Q93-In pseudosquint:                                 
A- Corneal light reflection test is normal but cover test is abnormal.   
B- Wide interpupillary distance due to Hypertelorism will present as pseudoesotropia.
C- Retinal examination is not necessary.  
D- Prominent epicanthal fold is a common cause that may disappear or lessen with age.         

Q94- Convergent squint in a two years old child can be due to any of the following except:
A-Abducent palsy.               
B- Accomodative esotrapia.
C- Oculomotor palsy.                   
D- Essential esotropia.
                                    ...        •        . '
Q95- Comparing between accornmodative esotropia and essential esotropia, only one statement is-true:
A- Essential esotropia usually starts at the age of three years,
B- Accomodative esotropia is usually associated with a high hypermetropia.    
C- Essential esotropia is best treated with glasses.
D- Accommodative esotropia must be treated with urgent surgery.

Q96-The following statements are true regarding intermittent eyotropi'a except:
A-The angle of deviation varies with different.directions of gaze.
B-Usually associated with myopia.    
C- Triggered by fatigue, inattention or emotional upset.         
D- Initially treated with full myopic glass correction and observation:

Q97- The following statements are true in the treatment of strabismus except
A- Full cycloplegic correction of refractive error.
B- Treatment of amblyopia by occlusion of the better seeing eye.
C- Extra ocular muscle surgery to restore alignment if glasses fail.      
D- All of the above
Q98- The most propable diagnosis in a sixty years old man with a dome shaped pigmented subretinal lesion is:
A- Retinoblasiotna.
B- Choroidal melanoma.
C- Rhabdomyosarcoma.
D- Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous,
Q99- In Simple myopic astigmatism :     
A- There is tendency for Eso deviation.
B- Two images are formed, one on the retina and the second is from of the retina.
C- Vision is corrected by spherical concave lenses.
D- There is high incidence of retinal detachment.    

Q100- Regarding cup: disc ratio (CDR), one statement is true:
A- It should be 0.3 and less.                        
B- It should be 0.3 and more,
C- Asymmetry in the cups between the two eyes is a normal finding.
 D- It is not a. useful remark in the follow up of glaucoma patients.

Ql0l- All of the followings are risk factors for development of primary angle closure glaucoma (PACG) except:          
A- Age above sixty years,             
B- Male gender,   
C- Caucasian racial group.                  
D- Positive family history

Q102- The initial treatment of choice for primary open angle glaucoma-(POAG) is:
A- Topical anti glaucoma medication.                                          
B- Laser trabeculoplasty
C- Traheailotomy
D- None of the above

Q103- One of the followings is not a feature of congenital glaucoma:
A- Cornea! haze.
B- Buphthalmos.
C- Break in Descent membrane.
D- Iris neovascularization.

Q104- One of the following anti glaucoma groups is used to enhance the uveoscleral outflow:
A- Beta adrenergic antagonists.           
B- Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
C- Prostaglandins.
D- Miotics.

Q105- Timolol eye drop is contraindicated in the following situations except:
A- Bronchial asthma.           
B- Renal stones
C- Third degree heart block.
D- Heart failure.

Q106-The following tonometers depends on the principle of indentation:
A- Schiotz.    
B- Perkins
C- Tonopen                        
D- Goldmann

Q107- Risk factors for the development of primary open angle glaucoma include the following except:
A- Age above sixty years,
B- Positive family history,
C- Hypermetropia.
D- Black race,
Q108- causes of neovascular (mbeotic) glaucoma include the following except:
A- Lens induced glaucoma.
B- Diabetic retinopathy.
C- Central retinal vein occlusion.
D-Ocular ischemic syndrome.

Q109- A middle aged man is presented wish poor vision following a blunt ocular trauma. He has a normal looking fundus and a hypermetropic refraction of about eleven diopters (+11) but no history of wearing
glasses previously. The most likely diagnosis is:
A-Traumatic cataract
B-Traumatic lens dislocation
C- ingle recession glaucoma
 D-Rhegmutogenous retinal detachment
Q110- Regarding the cornea all of the following statements are true except:
A- The cornea acts as a convex lens that changes its power during accommodation process,
B- It has an endothelial monolayer that maintains cornea! relative dehydration.
C-The stroma forms the majority of the corneal thickness.
D- The corneal epithelium is stratified squamous but in contrast to the skin, it is non keratinized.

Q111-Regarding congenital anomalies of the lid:
A- Epicanthal folds are usually unilateral,
B- Cryptophthalmos is a fold of skin that crosses nasal aspect of the palpebral fissure.
C-In Distichiasis an extra row of cilia is present.
D- Ablepharon is a common congnital defect.

Q112- Keratitis due to hypersensitivity (immune) reaction includes all of the following except:
A- Interstitial keratitis.       
 B- Marginal corneal ulcer in a patient with staplylococcal blepharitis.
C- Neurotroplic ulcer
D- Phlyctenular keratoconjuctivitis.

Q113- The following micro organisms can penetrate an intact corneal epithelium except:
A- Corynaebacterium diphtheriae.
B- Gonococci.
C- Chlamydia trachomatis,
D- Streptococci.

Q114- Causes of conjunctival pseudo membrane include all of the following except:
A-Severe adenoviral infection.
B- Gonococcus infection.
C- Steven - Johnson syndrome,
D- Molluscum contagiosum.
Q115- Regarding Trachoma all of the following statements are true except:
A- Corneal opacity is the end stage of the disease process.
B- It is caused by sero types A, B& C.                          
C- It is a disease of poor condition of hygiene.     
D- Treatment is by a single dose of metronidazole with strict personal hygiene

Q116- Conjunctival melanoma may arise from all of the following except:
A- Primary acquired melanosh (PAM) with atypia,
B- Pre-existing nevus.
C- Prlmary acquired melanosis (PAM) without atypia.
D-It may arise de novo.  

Q117- Red eye accompanied by a cornea! lesion (hat stains with fluorcsccin could he seen in:
 A-Acute iritis
B-Angle closure glaucoma,
C- Keratitis
 D- Acute conjunctivitis.
Q118- Uses of slit lamp:       
A- Measurement of IOP by Gold mann tonometer,
B- Minor surgical procedures like corneal.foreign body removal.
C- Laser delivery to the eye,     
D- All of the above

Q119- Uses of direct ophthalmoscope include the following except:
A- Examination of the anterior segment. 
B- Examination of the posterior segment
C- Laser delivery to the eye.     
D- Visuoscopy

Q120- Fluorescein stain:       
A - Its use is totally free from any risk of infection.
B- Pink in colur
C- Stains both epithelial defects and normal epithelial cells.
D- May be used in tonometry